Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 03.07.2025 00:36

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Common sleep aid blocks brain inflammation and tau buildup in Alzheimer’s model - PsyPost

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Thinking from a spiritual perspective, can we say that the journey in recovering from narcissistic abuse a battle of spiritual warfare? Any thoughts on this?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

What is the difference between using a brush for air drying and blow drying?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.